Exam Syllabus and Pattern 2026

SSC CHSL 2026 Tier-I and Tier-II pattern from the official notice, the topic list, qualifying marks, typing and DEO skill test rules, and what you can still fix in the correction window that closes at 11 pm on 16 October.

Notification 20/2026: two CBRT papers, 150 questions each, 150 minutes each, 300 marks total, one-third negative marking.

Advt 09/2026 uses a written test plus S.O.184 of 2020 marks for Class IV MTS and Sanitation Worker posts.

CEN 07/2026: 12th level NTPC, two CBTs, one-third negative marking, typing test dispensed for clerk posts.

F.6/2026/Tech.Post: objective, technical aptitude and practical tests plus interview for programmer posts.

F.6/11/SPA/2026: 100 MCQ objective test, 110 w.p.m. shorthand, 40 w.p.m. typing, interview. No negative marking.

Stage I is 100 questions in one hour with no negative marking, and it alone decides rank. Stages II to IV are pass or fail. Here is what each one checks.

No written test. Merit is the marks for your single best medal between 30 September 2024 and 30 September 2026. Full marks table, stages and tie rules.

100 questions in 120 minutes: English, Hindi, GK and Arithmetic, 25 each, with a 0.25 penalty, then a 15-mark interview. What to study in each section.

CBT 1 is 100 questions in 90 minutes, CBT 2 is 120 in 90. Both cut one-third of a mark per wrong answer. No typing test or CBAT under CEN 06/2026.

200 questions, 300 marks, 3 hours. Part A Tamil needs 60 of 150 before anything else is marked. Unit-wise question counts from Annexure III, syllabus code 496.

No printed MCQ scheme. PA-I reports 9:00 to 9:30 am. PAT-I reports 1:30 to 2:00 pm on 16 October 2026. Six-year CSIR project-staff bar applies.

No printed MCQ scheme. Report 08:45 am on 14 October 2026. Gate closes 10:00 am. One form lists every vacancy code. NET or GATE can raise PAT-I pay.

No written syllabus. One JRF on TCoE quantum sources. GATE or a listed national exam required. Age 28. Last date 15 October 2026. No fee.

No written test. Screening then interview only. Ordinary post must reach HSFC by 8 November 2026. The careers HTML online line does not override the PDF.

Phase-I 100 marks in 60 minutes. Phase-II 250-mark objective plus 30-mark qualifying descriptive English. Final merit 80:20 mains to interview. One-fourth negative marking.

Technical Officer: qualifying trade test, then 200 MCQs in 3 hours. Paper-I mental ability is +2 with no negative marking. Paper-II and III are +3 / −1 and make the merit list.

No printed MCQ syllabus. Committee may hold a same-day objective test then interview. Report 9:30 am. After 10:00 am you are out. NET or GATE can raise PAT-I pay to Rs 31,000.

Advt 65/10-2026: 100-mark Screening Test with negative marking, 120-mark descriptive SAT the same day, then personality test in Shimla if eligible candidates exceed 6:1.

No printed MCQ paper. Screening on eligibility. A written test, skill test or assignment may be added. YP-I is a graduate life-science post. YP-II needs 55 percent PG plus three years of dashboard work.

IIT(BHU)/CE/SEC-SLCR/NMCG/26-27/61 has no printed written syllabus. Shortlisting can use a test and/or interview. JRF needs GATE or NET. Form closes 29 October 2026.

CORP/JIT/03/2026-CINE screens on the form, then may hold a written or skill test and an interview. Closes 26 Oct 2026 at noon. No fee.

Advt 66/10-2026: 100-mark Screening Test with negative marking, 120-mark descriptive SAT same day, then personality test if ratio exceeds 6:1.

Advt 64/10-2026: M.Ch. Surgical Gastro-Enterology per Annexure-II, three years teaching. Section J calls eligible candidates straight to personality test.

NHB/HRMD/Recruitment/2026-27/01 selects by interview. Large lists may face group discussion first. CIBIL default bar and all-India posting.

F.6/2026-SC (RC): 100 MCQ objective test, 35 w.p.m. typing, English descriptive paper, interview. Qualifying marks in each stage.

CORP/JIT/03/2026-CH screens on the form, then may hold a written or skill test and an interview. Internships are not experience. Last-semester students may apply. No fee, no TA.

IOCL/MKTG/WR/APPR/2026-27 has no written test. Merit is the essential-qualification percentage. Two discipline codes reject the form. Training locations outside the Western Region states are rejected.

Each paper is 80 marks in 2 hours. Attempt nine questions, three from each part. Viva is 40 marks with its own 50 percent floor. Paper-II names both CrPC 1973 and BNSS 2023.

NPCIL/CACMA/2026/04 has no written syllabus. Shortlisting is 1:5 on Inter CA or Inter CMA aggregate. The interview is virtual. Applications without final Inter marks are not screened.

Notice 04/2026 has no written paper. Merit is the simple average of matriculation (all subjects, minimum 50 percent) and ITI. Lists are unit-wise. Two applications are all rejected.

NCL/01-2026/MTS is a Class 10 written exam of 150 questions, 450 marks, 2 hours. +3 for a correct answer, −1 for a wrong one. The advertisement prints no indicative chapter list.

CSIR-NEERI/1/2026 is a qualifying trade test, then 200 MCQs in 3 hours. Paper-I mental ability is +2 with no negative marking and is not in merit. Paper-II and III are +3 / −1 and are marked only if Paper-I is cleared.

RCI/HRD/Apprenticeship/Advt/2027 has no written syllabus. Shortlisting is academic merit, and an interview if required. The bars that stop a form are 70 percent or CGPA 7.5, pass years 2022 to 2026, no higher qualification, and two different portals.

There is no written paper. Marks come from one highest medal between 1 January 2024 and 1 November 2026. National and Khelo India participation without a medal is not eligible. Minimum mark is 10. PST and the sports trial are qualifying.

Punjab District Court Clerk CBT is 100 marks in 2 hours. You need 33 percent in each subject and 40 percent in aggregate. The typed English paper is opened only if GK is 33 percent. CPT does not add to merit.

Canara Bank's 3,500 graduate apprentice seats have no written exam. Merit is on class 12 or diploma percentage within one state. The only test is the local language, and a class 10 or 12 mark sheet can exempt you.

Every LSL26 lecturer paper is 100 marks: 60 subject, 15 pedagogy, 25 language and general studies. Here are the unit-wise marks for Hindi, English, Sanskrit, Physics, Political Science, History, Geography and Economics from the official SCERT syllabus.

HPSC Advertisement 25/2026 does not print a syllabus. Selection is generally a screening test, a subject knowledge test and an interview. The job is enforcing the FSS Act, 2006, so revise the Act, food chemistry and microbiology.

JTAACCE-2026 is a single-stage objective exam with no negative marking. Classes 1-5: three papers, 300 merit marks at +2 level. Classes 6-8: four papers, 380 merit marks at graduate level. Fail the 30 percent mother-tongue paper and nothing else is checked.

LPSC/03/2026 has a three-part written test: 60 discipline MCQs with one-third negative marking, 20 marks of aptitude, and 20 marks of descriptive questions. You need 50 percent in every part.

CEERI has not printed a written syllabus for Advertisement PF-08/2026. The interview follows the project title on your post code.

TKDL/08/2026 holds a written test at the posting city, then a hybrid interview. The advertisement does not print chapters. The degree and the desirable skills are the syllabus.

PXE Chandipur has not printed a written syllabus. The first shortlist is the percentage in the B.Tech or diploma. The test, if you are called, is at Chandipur.

HPPSC Advertisement 63/9-2026: Paper I is 100 marks in one hour. Paper II is the commission's own SAT, 60 marks plus 60 marks, from the 22 March 2025 agriculture syllabus still listed on its site.

Advertisement 12/2026 has no printed written syllabus. The shortlist uses the desirable qualification, extra experience, or a recruitment test UPSC has not yet announced.

ITBP Head Constable Education and Stress Counsellor written syllabus: 100 marks in 2 hours, with the 60 psychology marks split the way the 2026 notice prints them.

ITBP Head Constable Motor Mechanic syllabus: 100 marks in 2 hours at 12th standard, with 60 marks of trade theory, then a qualifying skill test.

What NLU Odisha is testing for Assistant Registrar and Section Officer: noting, drafting, office rules and a computer skill test, for advertisement NLUO/NTR-03/27.09.2026.

BPSC TRE 4.0 exam pattern 2026: 150 questions, 150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes, five options, and one-third negative marking.

GPSC preliminary exam pattern for advertisements 42/2026-27 to 56/2026-27: 300 questions, 180 minutes, then interview.

IBPS Hindi Officer syllabus and exam pattern 2026: Reasoning, English, General Awareness and Hindi, with marks, time and negative marking.

Madras High Court Data Entry Operator syllabus 2026: written test topics, skill test tasks, marks and qualifying marks.

How Wildlife Institute of India project interviews are decided: the 50-mark shortlist, and the field work each project will ask you to explain.